To the Readers’ Forum: I sometimes have to wonder, when I read letters to the editor protesting one thing or another that was decided through our court system, if the basis of the protest had been adequately considered. Recent complaints regarding the equal marriage rights decision in California are a perfect example of this. I notice that these complaints never consider the possibility that ‘‘the people’’ — which I assume to mean the voting public — could ever be wrong. If the people in England, in 1776, had been given the opportunity to vote on the United States’ independence, what do you think their decision would have been? Had the Emancipation Proclamation been put to a public vote, would it have been passed or defeated? If the decision to integrate the public schools in Topeka, Kansas, in 1954 had been put to ‘‘the people’’ there’s no doubt how that vote would have gone either. Would that have been the right thing to do? Should civil rights, equal rights under the law, really